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Here is how I am reasoning:
To show PA ⊢ Con(Σ) for any finite subset Σ of PA, it seems enough to show that IΣn+1 ¬⊢ IΣn ⇒ 0=1.
Assuming it does, there would then exist a cut-free proof of IΣn ⇒ 0=1 (in which system, exactly?).
My question is the following: we have seen the cut-elimination theorem for G3 (say, also for the predicate case), so I am not sure what the cut-elimination theorem would look like for our system IΣn+1.
My guess is that we obtain a cut-free proof of IΣn ⇒ 0=1 in G3 (for predicate logic) with the language of PA, and then we use the fact that it is cut-free to conclude IΣn+1 ⊢ IΣn ⇒ 0=1.
Once we have this, since N ⊨ IΣn+1, it would also satisfy the sequent IΣn ⇒ 0=1.
Am I correct in saying that this means N satisfies the interpretation of that sequent? If so, the contradiction would follow, I think.
Thanks in advance on behalf of myself and my colleagues,